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| | | | All Categories Legal Q&A |
| Area of Law: Property Law | | Q: | Dear eLawyer,
I am having some issues with my tenancy agreement and would like to seek your advice.
I am a sub-tenant to a shop unit. The main tenant (P) is renting the whole lot, i.e. ground floor and first floor unit from the owner (A), and sub-let to us.
Our tenant agreement is 2 years with an option to renew for additional 1 year. But P informed us that they are not continue renting the place before the expiry of the transitional period. So, we were asked to call A to discuss about the renewal of the rental.
We called A and A was telling us that he would like to increase the rental of additional RMXXX which we found it a lot compared to market rate. So we tried to negotiate with him and told him we will get back to him ASAP.
But the problem arise when A sent an agent bringing the potential tenant to our unit to view the place. We are not informed about it and called A to clarify this. A said he is still considering renting the whole lot out to 1 tenant but did not give us a firm answer whether he will do that nor give us notice to move out. And he was sarcastic enough to ask us not to call him and will get back to us but did not inform us when.
My questions are:
a) Are we tenant given the right to request a 3-month notice from the owner upon the expiry of the tenant agreement?
b) Since our tenant agreement is 2 years with an option to renew for additional 1 year, are we still given the right to renew in this case?
c) Can I have your advice how shall we deal with the owner if we're asked to vacant the premises without giving us enough notice?
Your advice is highly appreciated.
J L from Selangor |
| | A: | Dear J L,
Here is my answer for the questions:
Sub-tenancy is always based on the main-tenancy. If the main-tenancy does not exist anymore, the sub-tenant also has to leave unless the owner agrees for the sub-tenant to continue renting the premises.
To answer the questions one by one:
1) There is no law to fix a period for such notice for every case. You have to see whether the main tenancy agreement and the sub-tenancy agreement provide for 3-month notice. If no, how long is the period for the notice under the agreements. If there is no provision for the matter under the agreements, the normal practice is one month to be given for tenant to vacate the premises. However, you can discuss with the owner to reach a settlement as to when you can move out.
2) Sub-tenancy is based on main tenancy. As the main tenancy between the owner and the main tenant has been terminated, the sub-tenancy also cannot exist unless the owner agrees for you to continue renting the premises
3) You have to find out the period for the notice for vacant possession to be given under the main tenancy agreement and the sub-tenancy agreement. If the owner consented earlier for the main tenant to sub-let the premises, he will have to follow the period for the said notice provided under the agreement. If the notice does not give enough time for you to move out, you can challenge the notice if owner goes to court to apply for order to vacate the premises. However, you can discuss with the owner to reach a settlement as to when you can move out.
Hope the above will help you.
Goh Chuan Chean Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Family Law | | Q: | Need_advice from Perak |
| | A: | Dear Need_advice,
You can go to the Marriage Reconciliation body at the National Registration Department to file for reconciliation.
If reconciliation is not possible the Department will issue a Certificate. With the Certificate you will have to see a lawyer to file the Petition for Divorce in Court.
In respect of the child, you can seek for maintenance before filing the Petition for Divorce. This would be one of the reliefs sought in the Petition.
You would have to consider issues of custody of the child and property rights, if there is any property involved. Deborah Kaur Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Consumer Rights | | Q: | Dear eLawyer,
Here's the situation:
1. Bought a new car on dec 31, 2007. It's an exclusive brand. Broke down on April 27, 2008 and sent in for service on April 29, 2008 after making appointment. Repaired and replaced the fuel pump. But the broke down had no warning message at all. It put my life and my family's life at stake.
2. Collected car on May 7, 2008 and 2nd broke down happened on May 10, 2008.
3. The breakdown is endangering my life and my family again. No signal or warning message. The director of after sales called me 2 apologize but problem not fixed.
4. Gave me a courtesy car only after making so much noise. But the courtesy car is with the painting saying it is a courtesy car. I feel insulted. cos my car is much more higher grade than the courtesy car offered.
Hence, I like to know can I demand the following from the dealer:
1. Full refund plus all interest paid or
2. Replace a brand new car
3. Monetary compensation for the mental torture, time lost, inconveniences, painful, risks, humiliation, insecure feelings when driving the car. What is the reasonable amount i can ask for?
I have written an email to the HQ(oversea) attention to their CEO. I'm not sure what reply I will get but the local office is taking action to solve my problem. But I have no confident to drive the car again. What else can I do?
Please advise Angeline Chow from Kuala Lumpur |
| | A: | Dear Angeline,
Based on the facts provided by you, we can conclude that you are buying the car via a hire and purchase arrangement as you have mentioned your intention to claim for the interest.
Generally, there is no provision of refund or exchange unless there is a specific warranty of quality by the car manufacturers which is common in the marketing campaign of cars today.
To support your claim in the court of law would require a lot of expert evidences. In the case of a car, unless it is grossly wrong with the car, it is unlikely you can make up for such claim.
You can explore your claim with the Consumer Tribunal however you can only claim for maximum RM10k. You may also want to continue the negotiation with the car dealer and apply pressure accordingly. Otherwise, we would recommend you to see a lawyer for their better assessment of your case.
Chris Tan Chur Pim Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Property Law | | Q: | JC Lau from Pulau Pinang |
| | A: | Subject to the terms and conditions of the SPA, specifically in relation to the Vacant Possession (VP) and based on the facts provided, our observations are as follows:
1) based on the Lawyer's representation in relation to the early VP one can assumed that the VP has been delivered on 19-03-2008 on the basis that the maintenance charges to be paid by the buyer;
2) the representations by the Lawyer subsequently on 31-03-2008 is an effective re-delivery of VP back to you if the key is has already been returned to you; and
3) therefore, you can claim for the maintenance charges for that short period from 19-03-2008 to 31-03-2008.
However, this is on the basis that VP is only due for delivery upon completion of the SPA Chris Tan Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Bankruptcy Law | | Q: | In year 1998 when I was 23yrs old still schooling with no financial background, two of my uncles from Taiwan and South Africa used my name as a borrower and they acted as guarantors to get the loan from the bank to purchase 2 units of shop houses for investment purposes in Johor Bahru.
In year 2003, two of my uncles did not manage to sell these 2 units of shop houses and did not settle the outstanding payments with the bank. I was being declared bankruptcy by the court. The bank has advertised on the newspaper to look for me, but I was no where to be found as I did not read newspaper and I live in KL.
In year 2004, these 2 units of shop houses has been auction. The outstanding payments has not settle is RM 320,000.00 after deducted the auction price.
In year 2007, I was being blocked by the immigration to leave Malaysia.
All these years, 2 of my uncles are on the run in other countries and left me in Malaysia and they do not want to help me out of this case. I have no other option, but to face it alone.
I have not go to Insolvency department to have any meeting or settle this matter.
Please help me out in this matter, and advice me in the following:
1) Is it right for the Court to declare someone bankruptcy when the person cannot be found?
2) It has been 4 years since the day I am bankrupt. Can I avoid to meet Insolvency department and wait for the discharge?
3) If I am going to Insolvency department,
(a) what are the process?
(b) what will they ask me to do to settle / clear the outstanding payment?
(c) will my saving account being freeze?
(d) how can I be discharge from bankruptcy?
(e) do I need a lawyer / solicitor?
Jay J from Kuala Lumpur |
| | A: | 1) Yes. The court can grant bankruptcy against a person even though that person cannot be found. So long as, all cause papers in the bankruptcy proceedings have been properly served (i.e substituted service namely by advertisement and service of the cause papers to your last known address).
2) No. It is better to meet the official assignee (OA). The reason for which would be highlighted in 3(a),(b) & (c) below. In addition, the OA would give some options for settlement. If you attend all meetings and pay all monthly payments you may apply for discharge as a bankruptcy, the official assignee would prepare a report outlining your track records for the past 5 years. A good report would help you in your application for discharge.
3) (a) & (b)
First, the official assignee would asses your means - your financial capabilities and commitments (liabilities).
Second, the official assignee would call you up to attend creditor meetings from time to time. During the meeting, judgment creditor(s) would ask you whether you intend to settle and how you are going to settle.
Then, the official assignee would suggest a monthly repayment (say RM200 or RM500 per month).
(c). Yes. Once you have been declared a bankrupt the official assignee would notify all banks of your status and upon which your banking accounts would be frozen with immediate effect. All monies in the accounts would then be chaneled to the official assignee for settlement purposes.
(d). A discharge can be by several means:-
i). full settlement - you may ask the judgment creditor to reduce the settlement amount (say by 5%).
ii). 5 years after being declared a bankrupt. However, a good track record (as I mentioned earlier) is required.
(e). It depends. You don't need to engage a lawyer if you know how to go about it (some information would be obtained from OA)
Joseph Lee Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: IP Law | | Q: | Chee Hoong Hor from Selangor |
| | A: | Generally, creative works are protected under copyright. There is no registration process for copyright. What you need to do is to preserve evidence that you are the author and owner of the work.
It is also recommended that you execute a Statutory Declaration asserting your copyright. You can prepare this if you know how to. Otherwise, you can approach an IP lawyer or consultant to prepare one for you. It should not cost you more than a few hundred ringgit to get it professionally done.
You can obtain more information here -
http://www.mindvault.com.my/v2/default.asp?id=27
David Oh Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Bankruptcy Law | | Q: | Iznina Rafa from Kuala Lumpur |
| | A: | The judgment debt owed by the judgment debtor, unless set aside, remains a debt to which the debtor is required to pay.
The Bankruptcy Act allows the judgment creditor of a deceased debtor to present to the court a bankruptcy petition, asking from the Court for an order for the administration of the estate of the deceased debtor according to the law of bankruptcy.
The petition for administration however cannot be presented by the judgment creditor in general when proceedings have been commenced for the administration of the deceased's debtor's estate by other party. In your case, the fact that the letter of administration has been applied for may mean that the Bank (I assume the judgment creditor) may seem to be unable to petition for the aforesaid order of administration.
However, if the Bank can show to the court that the estate is "insufficient to pay its debt" [according to section 122(6) of the Bankruptcy Act 1967], it still can proceed to obtain the order of administration of the estate of the deceased debtor in bankrupty, and like consequences shall ensue as under an administration order made on the petition of a creditor.
Upon the order of administration being made, the property of the debtor shall vest in the Official Assignee as trustee to said property, and he shall immediately proceed to realize and distribute the property according to the Bankruptcy Act.
Perhaps the best foot forward at this juncture is to allow the legal representative of the deceased debtor's estate to negotiate with the bank as to mode of settlement, or to discuss with the legal representative whether the bank can prove insufficient estate to pay the deceased debtor's debt before taking the next course of action. Wallace Wong Hur Shiaw Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Others | | | A: | 1)Why would you sign in the 1st place if you do not understand the content of the contract? Having said that, if you signed the Agreement, it is presumably valid regardless whether it is handwritten or typed.
2)Your claim of English illiteracy has to be proven and you have to explain why you signed it despite not understanding it.
3)Yes, you should lodge a police report as prevention.
4)Yes, it will put you in a better position at trial later.
Chris Tan Chur Pim Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Property Law | | | A: | In reply to the query by Chloe Chin, we advise that she may not be able to "take over" the existing loan but she can purchase the Property and obtain a fresh loan from any financier and redeem the existing loan on the Property. The existing borrower should speak to the current banker to inform them of the proposed plan. Once redeemed, the existing borrower and guarantor will be discharged from their obligations on the current loan. She will need to bear the stamp duties on the Property transfer (which can be either by sale and purchase or transfer through love and affection) and the loan in this case.
If they allow the Property to be auctioned, she may attend the auction to try and bid for the Property. She should inform the auctioneer/banker of her intention to bid. However, there is no guarantee that she will get the Property as there may be other bidders who are successful. Furthermore, the current bank will still take legal action against the borrower for the balance amount outstanding due to them after the auction.
Soraya Jabid Advocate & Solicitor |
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| Note: Click the Question to read the Answer | | Area of Law: Criminal Law | | Q: | Dear eLawyer,
Hi,I’m a student and my father is a contractor.He currently have a lot of project with him.Recently,a lot of his friend(i not sure those are my father friends,colleagues or sub-contractor) came to my house and wanted to meet my father but the way they approached my house is like the feeling of wanted to destroy my house by hitting the door like mad.
At that time,i was at home alone n told them my father not at home.Suddenly,they became very angry and straight away broke my house windows and tried to damage the door to enter the house.They also warned me if i not let them in they will burn my house and gave me 1 hour to contact my father.At that time i was so scared and don’t know what to do but i managed to call 999.
Unfortunately,their angry is at the peak and start to kick the door and i hang up the call.They also said they not afraid of enforcement.So,i call my father but to no avail.Then i called my brother and let my brother spoke to them.My brother said to them if business related they need to settle it with my father instead of come to my house to threaten me.After that,my brother asked me to let them in.
When i let them in they searched my house and wanted to take away all my properties such as my laptop,computer,etc.So,i beg them not to take anything and they agreed with condition my father need to settle ‘the things’ which i don’t know with them else they will come again to break my legs and take away my things.In the end,my brother and i wnet to police station to make a police report for cover(safety measure).
My question is if:
1)i wanted to sue them but will i win?
2)If they were not sentence to jail and this will definitely make them even more angry and of course will cause them to come to my house again.At that time what i should do then since the 1st time i called 999 and the police arrived quite late(police arrived after they went away during the 1st time)?
3)How to sue them?
HUNG SHEN WEI from Selangor |
| | A: | Dear SW,
You need to talk to your father to find out why those men came to your house in an angry manner. Whatsoever problem they have with your father, they have no right to threaten you or to search your house or to take away your belongings.
You did the right thing in lodging a police report for your own safety. If your report has stated the full facts, the police may investigate a case of criminal intimidation, trespass and robbery.
You may sue them for trespass to your house and for conversation of the items taken. You must first talk to your father to find out more facts such as the identity of those men, why, are they so angry (maybe your father owes them money) and whether your father would be prepared to take legal actions against them. If your father is with you than go ahead to make an appointment with a local lawyer.
W. S. Goh Advocate & Solicitor |
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